In my previous post I included a link to https://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/10440/prof-jason-beduhn-letter-on-nwt-kit-part-2 in which I quoted parts from a post (by bj) of a letter by DeBuhn. That same post by bj also included a second letter from DeBuhn. That second letter commented about the lack of a definite article (regarding theos) in the latter part of the Greek of John 1:1. It said what that signifies, namely "the word" was being said as being in the same category of God, rather than making the claim of being God.
DeBuhn explanation is thus in harmony with the WT's NWT translation of "a god". That agrees with what I read more than 12 years ago in a used textbook (which I found in a thrift store) about NT Koine Greek, in regards to John 1:1 and the meaning of a lack of a definite article in such Greek. [I made that discovery when I still thought of myself as a JW, but one doing critical
research regarding the WT's teachings and doing independent research of
the Bible.] Namely that the lack of the definite article (regarding theos) in the latter part of the version was making the claim that "the word" was of the same quality or type of being as God, instead of making the claim that "the word" was God (the God). The WT's translation of "a god" accurately conveys that idea, and is thus an accurate translation of John 1:1.